JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGE - 2012 - SCREENING EXAM QUESTIONS

JCJ 2012 SCREENING QUESTIONS

Lease Act – 3

1.      Building includes  --- any house or hut … and also includes gardens and garage

2.      Controller means  --- not below rank of Tahsildar

3.      Conversion of residential into non-residential  --- with writing permission of controller

Domestic Violence - 2

4.      Domestic relationship means   --- joint family, nucleus family, residing with abuser [All of the above]

5.      Power of Magistrate in Domestic Violence --- to give protection order

Registration Act - 2

6.      Registered document prevails over unregistered document  --- S. 50

7.      Destruction of unclaimed documents except Will  --- 2 years

Limitation Act – 5

8.      Enforcement of mandatory injunction  --- 3 years

9.      Acknowledgement of liability after limitation period  --- Is of no effect

10.  Limitation period for obstruction to easement acquired u/s 25 LA  --- 2 years

11.  S. 18(2) LA, Oral evidence can be given when acknowledgement is  --- Undated

12.  Section 4 of Limitation Act applies --- only if on the opening day the plaint is presented before the proper court.

Specific Relief Act - 5

13.  Mandatory Injunction  --- S. 39 SRA

14.  Temporary Injunction, which among following is not correct  --- granted permanently [Option ‘a’]

15.  S.26 SRA Rectification of instrument, Mistake  --- Mistake in framing instrument, Mutual, Bilateral [All the above]

16.  Perpetual Injunction is  --- Judicial Process, Preventive, [All the above]

17.  Declaratory Decree  --- can be declined

Easement - 3

18.  Dominant Heritage  --- land for beneficial enjoyment of which right exist

19.  Easement can be extinguished  --- when dominant owner releases it expressly or impliedly

20.  Easement is  --- right in rem

Transfer of Property - 5

21.  Gift to many of whom one does not accept  --- void as to interest which would have taken had he accepted [Option ‘c’]

22.  Notice u/s 111 TPA can be waived  --- with express or implied consent of the person to whom notice is given

23.  Lis Pendens  --- Public policy

24.  Unborn person acquires vested in property  --- when he is born [Option ‘d’ – None of the above]

25.  Suit debarring mortgagor from redemption  --- Suit for foreclosure

Hindu Marriage Act - 3

26.  Section 5(i) of Hindu Marriage Act introduces  ---Monogamy

27.  With decree of dissolution of marriage court may grant  ---Permanent alimony and maintenance (S. 25)

28.  In absence of any proceeding under Hindu Marriage Act, the order of custody, maintenance and education of minor children can be decided by  --- Guardianship Court

Hindu Succession Act - 6

29.  One person is said to be an ____ of another if the two are related by blood or adopted wholly through males   --- Agnate

30.  when they are descended from a common ancestor but by different wives – Half blood

31.  Family arrangement  --- binds all members including minors and children in womb

32.  Suit for partition is filed  --- No effect in share by subsequent births and deaths in family

33.  Mode of succession  --- Per capita and not per stripes; and as tenants in common, not as joint tenants

34.  In suit if one branch of family does not object then  --- it does not operate as resjudicata to the other branch.

Indian Evidence Act - 9

35.  Admission  --- is admissible when made by agent authorized in Civil proceeding; and not admissible if made by agent in Criminal proceeding

36.  Civil – Preponderance of possibilities; Criminal – beyond reasonable doubt

37.  Where there can be no estoppel  --- Attestation of Deed

38.  Section 124 IEA – Communication to be made in Official confidence

39.  Expert Evidence can be given on  --- Both Handwriting and Finger impressions

40.  Evidence includes – both Documentary and Ocular evidence

41.  All other documents not included under S. 74 IEA are  --- Private Documents (S. 75)

42.  Privilege under S. 121 IEA extends to  --- Arbitrator also

43.  Due execution and authenticatiob of a power of attorney shall be presumed under section 85 IEA when executed before & authenticated by  ---  Judge, Notary, Magistrate [All the above]

Negotiable Instrument Act – 1

44.  S. 118 NI Act, Presumption that instrument was made  --- on that date of instrument

Indian Penal Code - 14

45.  Right of Private Defence  --- S. 96 IPC

46.  Wrongful confinement  --- S. 340 IPC

47.  Swimmer not saving a person from drowning  --- No offence

48.  5 persons went to beat ‘A’ but one among them killed him with gun hiding in his clothes --- All are liable for murder of ‘A’

49.  X instigates A a six year old boy to murder Y  --- X is guilty of offence of murder

50.  Extension of code to extra-territorial offences  --- S. 4 IPC

51.  U/s 73 IPC limit of solitary confinement  --- 3 months

52.  Doctor treating a child without consent in good faith  --- Not liable

53.  Criminal Conspiracy  --- 2 or more persons

54.  U/s 159 IPC – Both persons should actively participate in fighting [Option: None of the above]

55.  Promoting enmity between different groups on ground of religion, race, etc  --- S. 153A IPC

56.  Dishonest intention preceded in  --- Theft

57.  Grave and Sudden Provocation  --- Question of fact

58.  Abetment of an offence  --- always an offence

Criminal Procedure Code – 16

59.  Under Section 468 CrPC, limitation period for offence attracting fine only  --- 6 months

60.  U/s 164 CrPC, Confession recorded by Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate is admissible even if they are not competent to try the case.

61.  Trial, Inquiry, etc done without following procedure  --- not void unless injustice is caused (S. 462 CRPC)

62.  When a case is found to be exclusively triable by Court of Sessions u/s 209, Magistrate u/s 202 delaying the process has to  --- examine the complainant and all witnesses.

63.  Magistrate of First Class can inflict imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to  --- 10,000

64.  Perishable goods can be sold, if no claimant appears within --- 6 months (S. 459 R/W 458)

65.  Offences other than mentioned U/S 320 CrPC  --- Non compoundable

66.  When person competent to compound an offence is dead  --- the legal representative can compound it with the permission of the court

67.  Application for Plea Bargaining can be made  --- in the court where is case is pending for trial

68.  U/s 174(1), the police officer has to give information regarding suspicious deaths to  --- Executive Magistrate

69.  Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused  --- S. 205 CRPC

70.  S. 311 CRPC, Recalling of witnesses by court  --- even when evidence on both sides is closed

71.  S.311A CRPC, Magistrate may direct any person to  --- give specimen signature or handwriting

72.  Confession can be recorded  --- at any time during investigation but before commencement of inquiry or trial.

73.  If investigation is not completed in 90 days or 60 days  --- accused is entitled to be release on bail on making an application.

74.  While passing an order for disposal of property  --- the Magistrate has to decide the question of entitlement of possession without deciding the title.

Indian Contract Act - 12

75.  Bank Guarantee is a contract between  --- Bank and Beneficiary

76.  U/s 57 ICA, Reciprocal promise to do things legal and also other things illegal  --- first set of promise is contract, but second set is a void agreement.

77.  A contract is discharged by  --- both frustration and performance of contract

78.  Agreement in restraint of marriage  --- Void

79.  A contract of insurance is  --- Indemnity contract

80.  Finder of goods  --- bailee

81.  Agent does not have  --- right to sell

82.  Novation  --- Substitution of new contract

83.  Restitution stops when Repayment begins  --- minors only

84.  Termination of Agency  --- by death or insolvency of any of agent or principal

85.  Who is not an Agent  --- Independent buyer

86.  Ratification of an act can be made --- expressed or implied

Civil Procedure Code - 14

87.  O.XVI R.17  --- inspite of due diligence party could not have raised the matter before the commencement or trial.

88.  A decree can be executed by  --- court passing the decree or court where it is transferred for execution

89.  Decree by Reciprocal territory, on presentation of certified copy, can be executed by District court as if it has been passed by it  --- True.

90.  Legal Representatives of the deceased can come onto file  --- within 90 days from death of deceased

91.  O.XVIII, Commissioner cannot be appointed for  --- deciding any objections raised

92.  S.152 , Amendment of judgment, decree or orders can be made  --- by court on its own motion (or) on application of any of the parties.

93.  A sues B for 1000.  B shows that he has claim against A for 2000. In such a case  --- the two claims being both definite, pecuniary demands may be set-off.

94.  In urgent cases, a suit against government can be filed  --- without serving notice with the leave of the court.

95.  A: Women who according to customs ought not to be compelled to appear in public shall be exempt from personal appearance in Court; B: Nothing herein contained shall be deemed to exempt such women from arrest in execution of civil process in any case in which the arrest of women is not prohibited by this code  --- Both A and B are correct.

96.  In ex parte decree, the defendant can opt for  --- appeal u/s 96(2) or set aside under O.IX R.13

97.  Under O.XXIII R.3, Order must be in writing and signed by both parties.

98.  Constitutional validity of 1999 and 2002 Amendments  --- Salem Advocates Bar Association Case

99.  Abatement is  --- no offence

100. After arrest, the Judgment debtor can be released --- by State Government on the ground of contagious diseases; by State Government on the ground of infectious diseases; by executing court on the ground of illness 

APP DESCRIPTIVE EXAMINATION PAPER – 2007

Questions 1 to 10: 10 marks each

1.                  Plea Bargaining

2.                  Criminal misconduct of public servant under Prevention of Corruption Act

3.                  Res Gestae

4.                  Confessions in Police Custody

5.                  Under what circumstances secondary evidence may be given

6.                  Writ of Mandamus

7.                  What is the procedure while conducting Search

8.                  Theft, Extortion and Robbery

9.                  Offences relating to marriage

10.              Inquest

Questions 11 to 15: 20 marks each

11.              What are the guidelines given by SC in Dr. Basu v. State of West Bengal.

12.              Common Intention and Common Object

13.              Culpable Homicide and Murder

14.              Dying Declaration

15.              Judgment relating to IX Schedule of Constitution

APP DESCRIPTIVE EXAMINATION PAPER – 2010

Questions 1 to 10: 10 marks each

1.                  Kidnapping and Abduction

2.                  Rape and Custodial Rape

3.                  Bail and Personal liberty

4.                  Compounding of offences

5.                  sanction for prosecution of public servant

6.                  Evidentiary value of FIR

7.                  Estoppel

8.                  Relevancy of character in Indian Evidence Act

9.                  Aggressive Cross Examination

10.              Writ of Quo Warranto

11.               

Questions 11 to 15: 20 marks each

11.              Changes required under IPC

12.              Constitutional validity of Death Penalty

13.              Adversarial and Inquisitorial Procedure

14.              Double Jeopardy

15.              Judicial Review

APP DESCRIPTIVE EXAMINATION PAPER – December 2011

Questions 1 to 10: 10 marks each

1.                  Probation of an accused

2.                  Adultery and Bigamy

3.                  Latest trends on Perjury

4.                  Joinder of Charges

5.                  Victim Compensation Scheme

6.                  Privileged Communication

7.                  Free legal aid

8.                  Shifting of burden on the accused

9.                  Expert Opinion

10.              Writ of Certiorari

Questions 11 to 15: 20 marks each

11.              Examination of Witnesses

12.              Basic structure and contours of amendment in the constitution

13.              Mandatory minimum punishment prescribed and the offences under IPC

14.              FIR and its evidentiary value

15.              Doctrine of Insanity

APP DESCRIPTIVE EXAMINATION PAPER – 2013

Questions 1 to 10: 10 marks each

1.                  Pardon

2.                  Writ of Quo Warranto

3.                  Fir

4.                  Public document

5.                  Retracted confession

6.                  Fair trial

7.                  Unlawful assembly

8.                  Compounding of offences

9.                  Kidnapping and Abduction

10.              Child witness

Questions 11 to 15: 20 marks each

11.              Significance of Directive Principles of state policy

12.              Right of private defence  

13.              Charge sheet and  joinder of charges

14.              Recent laws on rape

15.              Admission of dying declaration  

Addl. PP Gr. II & APP Rect. 2013 - KEY 11-06-2013

Addl. PP Gr. II & APP Rect. 2013 - KEY 11-06-2013
Q. No. A B C D
1 A D C C
2 C A B D
3 D D A D
4 A B A B
5 A B B C
6 A C B A
7 A B A A
8 B A A C
9 C A B B
10 D B C A
11 D B B A
12 B A B B
13 C A A B
14 A B C A
15 A C D C
16 D B A D
17 A B A A
18 D C A A
19 B D A A
20 B D B A
21 A B D B
22 A C A A
23 B A D B
24 C A B A
25 B A B A
26 B B C B
27 C A D A
28 B A D A
29 A B B A
30 A A C B
31 B A A C
32 B C A B
33 A D A B
34 B A B D
35 A A A A
36 A A A D
37 B A B B
38 A B A B
39 C C C B
40 A A C D
41 B D D C
42 D C C D
43 C B D A
44 D C A B
45 B C C D
46 D D A A
47 C C B C
48 D D D B
49 A A C B
50 B A D B
51 C C D A
52 A D A C
53 D B C B
54 C A B C
55 B A C C
56 D D A D
57 A D D C
58 C A C D
59 B C B A
60 C C B C
61 C B D A
62 D D C D
63 C C D C
64 D B A B
65 A D B A
66 B C A D
67 B A C D
68 A B D A
69 C D B C
70 B C A C
71 A D A B
72 C D D D
73 D A D C
74 B C A B
75 A B C D
76 C B B A
77 B B B C
78 D A A D
79 C C C B
80 B B B A
81 D B C C
82 A D B A
83 D C D B
84 D D C D
85 A A B C
86 C B D D
87 A D C B
88 C A C D
89 B A B A
90 C D D A
91 B A B C
92 A B C C
93 A C C A
94 D C A B
95 A C B B
96 A B B C
97 D D D B
98 A B C A
99 B C D C
100 C C B C
101 B A A B
102 D B C D
103 A B B B
104 A D C C
105 C C B C
106 C D A A
107 C B A B
108 B A C B
109 D C A D
110 B B B C
111 C C B D
112 C B C B
113 C A B D
114 A A A A
115 B B D A
116 B D A D
117 C A A A
118 B A D B
119 A C A C
120 A C B A
121 B A C C
122 B B B B
123 D B D C
124 C C A B
125 D B A A
126 B A C A
127 D D A C
128 D D C C
129 D D B C
130 D A D D
131 B D A A
132 D B D A
133 D D D C
134 D A D D
135 A B D D
136 D A D D
137 B A B D
138 D B A A
139 C A B D
140 C D A B
141 C D A D
142 D D B A
143 A D A B
144 A B C A
145 C A C A
146 D C B B
147 A B C A
148 B D C A
149 A A A C
150 A D C B
Page 5 of 7
Addl. PP Gr. II & APP Rect. 2013 - KEY 11-06-2013
Q. No. A B C D
151 B C C D
152 A C C A
153 C C D D
154 C D A C
155 B A A C
156 C A C B
157 C C D C
158 A D D C
159 A C D A
160 C C D D
161 B B A D
162 D C D D
163 A C B D
164 D A D B
165 A C B B
166 B D B C
167 A C C A
168 B A A A
169 B D A C
170 B A A B
171 C A A B
172 A B A C
173 B A A A
174 A B B A
175 D B B B
176 A B C A
177 C D A B
178 C C A B
179 A C C A
180 A B A D
Page 6 of 7
Addl. PP Gr. II & APP Rect. 2013 - KEY 11-06-2013
Q. No. A B C D
181 A A B A
182 A D A C
183 A A B C
184 B C B C
185 B C A D
186 B B D C
187 D B A A
188 C C C D
189 C A C A
190 B A C B
191 C A D B
192 A A C D
193 A A A C
194 C A D C
195 C B A A
196 D B B A
197 C C B A
198 A A D A
199 D A C A
200 A C C B

JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGE EXAMINATION 2009

JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGE EXAMINATION

(SCREENING TEST)

(Held on 21st, June 2009)

Time : 2 Hours Marks: 100

Paper - 1

1. According to sec. 2(b) of Cr.P.C, 1973, 'Charge' includes -

(a) Heading of Charge

(b) Any head of charge when the charge contains head

(c) Any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one

(d) All the above

2. As per the Amendment Act, 2008 of Cr.P.C, the new definition that was inserted under Sec. 2(wa) is -

(a) Audio-Video Electronic means (b) Victim

(c) Victim Compensation (d) Victim Compensation Scheme

3. The examination of a witness by the adverse party is -

(a) Examination-in-chief (b) Cross Examination

(c) Re-examination (d) Oral Examination

4. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with other facts they make the existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable is relevant under

(a) Sec. 9 of Evidence Act (b) Sec. 10 of Evidence Act

(c) Sec. 11 of Evidence Act (d) Sec. 12 of Evidence Act

5. State the correct sequence:

(a) Issue, Trial, Arguments, Pleadings, Decree, Judgement

(b) Pleadings, Trial, Issues, Arguments, Decree, Judgement

(c) Pleadings, Issues, Arguments, Trial Judgement Decree

(d) Pleadings, Issues, Trial Arguments, Judgement, Decree

6. During the pendency of a suit relating to a house, the defendant is about to leave the local limits of the Court with an intension to delay the suit. The plaintiff files an application under Order 38-Rule 1 for the arrest of the defendant. Now the defedant -

(a) Cannot be arrested (b) Can be arrested

7. When the immovable property of one person is, by the act of parties or operation of law, made security for the payment of money to another, such transaction is -

(a) Pledge (b) Accession (c) Mortgage (d) Charge

8. A gift made in expectation of death is know as -

 (a) Universal Gift (b) Onerous Gift

(c) Resumable Gift (d) Donatio mortis causa

9. A Contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to such contract does not happen, is known as -

(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Quasi Contract

(c) Contingent Contract (d) Impossible Contract

10. An agreement where the parties express opposite views regarding an uncertain event and which results into a gain to one person at the loss of another person, is known as -

(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Contingent Contract

(c) Continuing Agreement (d) Standing form Contract

11. When an instrument in writing does not express the real intention of the parties due to fraud or mutual mistake of the parties, a suit can be instituted for -

(a) Cancellation of Instrument (b) Rectification of Instrument

(c) Declaration of Instrument (d) Rescission of Contract

12. What is the time limit to institute a suit for recovery of the property on the basis of dispossession under the provisions of C.P.C. when the plaintiff was disposed of a house by the defendant?

(a) 60 days from the date of dispossession

(b) 6 months from the date of dispossession

(c) 6 years from the date of dispossession

(d) None of the above

13. The involvement of Five or more persons is essential for the offence of ..

(a) Theft (b) Extortion (c) Roberry (d) Decoity

14. Three persons A, B & C went to a Bank. A stood outside the bank holding a revolver with him and watching at the road. B & C entered the bank and asked the Cashier by showing revolvers at him, to handover the cash to them. On the refusal to do so, C shot at the Cashier and took away money from Counter. Now ........

(a) C is liable for the murder and A & B are liable for abetment.

(b) B & C are liable for murder and A is liable for abetment.

(c) A, B & C are liable for murder.

(d) None of them is liable because it is not a murder but only culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

15. 'Sans recourse indorsement' means -

(a) Indorsement with limited liability. (b) Indorsement without liability.

(c) Indorsement with absolute liability.

 (d) Indorsement with conditional liability.

16. What is the punishment under Sec. 138 of N.I. Act.

(a) Imprisoment upto 2 years or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of cheque or with both.

(b) Imprisonment upto 2 years and with fine which may extend to twice the

amount of cheque.

(c) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years and fine of Rs.10,000.

(d) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years or fine of Rs.10,000 - or with both.

17. The limitation period for enforcement of a perpetual injunction is -

(a) 1 year (b) 3 years (c) 12 years (d) None of the above.

18. What is true with regard to application of Limitation Act, 1963?

(i) It has no application to sec. 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

(ii) This Act shall not apply to any suit or other proceeding relating to marriage and divorce.

(iii) Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or application a period of limitation different from the period prescribed by the schedule, the provisions of Sec. 3 shall apply as if such period where the period prescribed by the schedule.

(iv) The provisions of Section 4 to 24 shall apply, unless expressly barred by special or local law.

(a) (i) & (ii) are correct. (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

19. An easement right is a right-

(a) in rem (b) in personam

20. Of the following, which is not a mode of acquiring easement?

(a) Easement by law (b) Easement by grant

(c) Easement by prescription (d) Easement by necessity

21. Whether Principle of res judicita applies to claim petitions under Order 21, Rule 58?

(a) No (b) Yes

22. X files a suit against Y and when the suit is called on for hearing neither party appeared in the Court. The Court dismissed the suit under Order 9, Rule 3.thereafter X may -

(a) File a fresh suit, subject to the law of limitation.

(b) Apply to the Court for restoring the suit by showing or sufficient cause.

(c) both (a) and (b)

 (d) neither (a) nor (b)

23. Every Police Officer making an investigation shall enter day to day proceeding for a case in a Diary Called

a) General Diary b) Special diary

c) Duty Diary d) Case Diary

24. Mr. Kumar voluntarily causes hurt to Gowtham. Gowtham goes to Police Station to lodge F.I.R. The concerned Police Officer refuses to record the F.I.R. whether the act of the Police Officer is valid?

(a) No (b) Yes

25. Khan commits an offence of grievous hurt in Hyderabad. However, he makes a confession before the Judicial Magistrate at Adilabad, who has no power to try the case. Whether the confession recorded, after following the procedure, by the Magistrate is valid?

(a) No (b) Yes

26. The limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings before -

a) Courts b) Executive Authority

c) Quasi-Judicial Tribunals d) none of the above

27. Section 5 of the Limitation Act deals with

a) Bar of Limitation.

b) Extension of prescribed period in certain cases.

c) Doctrine of Legal Disability. d) None of the above.

28. The provision of improvements made by bonafide holders under defective title is dealt in

a) Sec. 50 of T.P. Act b) Sec. 51 of T.P. Act

c) Sec 53 of T.P. Act. d) None of the above

29. Of the following which is misfit matching:

(a) Sec. 81 of T.P. Act - Marshalling Securities.

b) Sec. 82 of T.P. Act - Doctrine of Contribution.

c) Sec. 92 of T.P. Act. - Doctrine of Subrogation.

d) Sec. 93 of T.P. Act - Charge.

30. According to section 60 of T.P. Act, a clog on redemption is

a) valid subject to certain conditions b) absolutely valid

c) voidable d) None of the above

31. Of the following which is a misfit matching

a) Agreement to supply goods from time to time - Continuing Offer

b) Responsibility of Finder of Lost goods - Agent

c) Betting Agreement - Wagering Agreement.

d) An agreement to pay Rs.100/-, if it rains on Sunday - Contingent Contract

32. A Contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person, is called

a) Contract of Guarantee b) Contract of Insurance

c) Contract of Bailment d) Contract of Indemnity

33. According to Section 69 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an unregistered firm can file a suit against an outsider for recovery of an amount not exceeding Rs.100/-

(a) Yes (b) No

34. 'An Agency coupled with interest' can be revoked by Principal

(a) Yes (b) No

35. Doctrine of estoppel can be applied against a minor

(a) No (b) Yes

36. As per Sec. 3 of Indian Evidence Act, Fact means and includes ......

a) Physical Facts b) Psychological Facts.

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) or nor (b)

37. Can an evidence obtained by committing the offence of theft be admitted in a case of criminal nature?

(a) Yes (b) No

38. A tape record of speech is .........

(a) Documentary Evidence (b) Oral Evidence

39. Mr. Lallu, an accused writes a letter, in his own handwriting with his signature, addressing a Police Officer that he murdered his wife. The letter was found near the dead body of his wife. Is the confession made by Lallu in the letter admissible in evidence against him?

a) Yes, the letter is relevant b) No, it is not relevent

40. Mr. Bhallu is accused of a Murder. The police have produced an aex from a place and he said that it was the weapon with which the deceased was killed. Whether this statement made by him is relevant under Sec. 27 of Evidence Act?

a) Yes, it is relevant to the extent of axe.

b) No, it is not relevant as Sec. 27 is not applicable to the present case.

41. Mr. Varlu fires at Venkat with an intention to kill him. Venkat sustains serious injuries. He lodges a F.I.R. against Varlu and subsequently, Venkat dies due to injuries. Whether this F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.

a) Yes, the F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.

b) No. it is not a statement made by him regarding his death.

42. How many witnesses are required to prove a Criminal case beyond all reasonable doubts?

a) minimum Two b) minimum Three

c) minimum four d) None of the above

43. 'Any Question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive' is called.

a) Patent Question b) Latent Question

c) Leading Question d) Misleading Question

44. As per Sec. 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence can be adduced relating to a

a) Fact in issue b) relevant fact

c) Both (a) & (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)

45. Under Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act, evidence means .........

a) Documentary Evidence b) Occular Evidence

c) Neither (a) nor (b) d) Both (a) & (b)

46. As per Sec. 167(5) Cr.P.C. a Magistrate can pass an order of stopping further investigation and discharge the accused, in a summons case, if the investigation is not completed within a period of ............. months from the date on which the accused was arrested.

a) 2 Months b) 3 Months

c) 6 Months d) None of these

47. As per Sec. 357-A of Cr. P.C (Amendment Act, 2008) Who is the authority to decide the Quantum of Compensation payable to the victim?

a) The Trial Court b) The Sessions Court

c) The High Court d) The district or State Legal Service Authority

48. Whta is true with regard to plea bargaining?

a) It has application where offence attracts imprisonment exceeding 7years

b) It is applicable where the offence affect Socio-economic Conditions of the

Country

c) Plea bargaining will not be allowed where the offence has been committed against a Woman, or a Child below where the offence

d) All the above

49. Whenever a case is tried summarily, the sentence of imprisonment shall not exceed

a) 2 Months b) 3 Months

c) 6 Months d) None of these

50. A, B and C are charged by a Magistrate of 1 Class with, and convicted by him of, robbing D, A, B & C were afterwards charged with and tried for decoity on the same facts. Now -

a) They can take protection under Sec. 300 Cr. PC

b) They cannot take protection under Sec. 300 Cr.PC

51. Aand B are the joint owners of a horse. Atakes the horse of B's possession intending to use it However, A sells the horse and appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. Now A is guilty of

a) No offence b) Criminal Breach of Trust

c) Mischief d) Dishonest Misappropriation

52. A& B are the Joint Owners of a horse AShoots intending thereby to cause wrongful loss to B now A is guilty of -

a) No offence b) Mischief

c) Criminal Breach of Trust d) Criminal Misappropriation

53. Sec.84 of I.P.C provides for -

a) Medical Insanity b) Legal Insanity

c) Both Medical and Legal Insanity d) None of the above

54. Abetment under Sec. 107 I.P.C can be constituted

a)Instigation b) Conspiracy

c) Intentional Aid d) All the above

55. Rama, an Officer of a Court of Justice, was ordered by the court Arrest Raheem, After due enquiry beliving Raheemuddin to be Raheem, Rama arrest Raheemuddin. Rama is exempt from Criminal Liability under

a)Sec.76 I.P.C. b) Sec. 78 I.P.C.

c) Sec. 79 I.P.C. d) None of the above

56. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public tranquility, they are said to commit the offence of

a) Affray b) Rioting

c) Public Nuisance d) All the above

57. Sec. 34 of I.P.C.

a) Creates a substantive offence b) is a rule of evidence

58. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under

a) grave and sudden provocation b) Self- intoxication

c) irresistable impulse d) All the above

59. For a unlawful assembly under sec. 141 I.P.C the minimum number of persons required is

a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Seven

60. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence or, giving false information to screen to screen offender, is an offence under

a) Sec. 200 I.P.C. b) Sec. 201 I.P.C.

c) Sec. 202 I.P.C. d) Sec. 203. I.P.C.

61. What is the punishment for the offence of Theft?

a) Imprisonment upto 3 years and fine

b) Imprisonment of not less than 3 years and fine

c) Imprisonment 3years or fine

d) Imprisonment up to 3years or fine or with both

62. Can there be more than one preliminary decree and one final decree?

a) Yes b) No

63. Whether Doctrine of legal disablity applies to Pre-emption Suits?

a) Yes b) No

64. Whether an interpleader' suit can be instistuted by the agent aganist princiopal?

a) Yes b) No

c) Yes, when a third party claims right through principal

65. Whether an ex-parte decree can be challenged by way of appeal?

a) No b) Yes

66. When a material proposition of fact of law is affirmed by one party and denied by the other, it is known as

a) An assertion b) An allegation

c) An admission d) An issue

67. Mr. Vinod of Adilabad makes a proposal to sell his house, situated in vikarabad, to vikram of Nizamabad. In the sale agreement they provide a clause stating that all disputes arising out of the transactions are to be decided by the Court of Nizamabad. There after when a dispute arises Vikram must file a suit.

a) In the Court of Adilabad b) In the Court of Nizamabad

c) In the Court of Vikarabad d) All the above

68. Every Warrant of Arrest issued by a Court remains in force for

a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 3 years

d) None of the above

69. According to Order VI C.P.C 'pleading' shall mean

a)Plaint b) Written Statement

c) Plaint and Written Statement d) Plaint or Written Statement

70. Under Sec. 167 Cr. P.C, the nature of custody can be changed from judicial custody to police custody

a) During the period of first 14 days b) During the period of first 15 days

c) During the period of first 30 days d) None of the above

71. If a Plaintiff fails to sue for the whole of the claim which he is entitled to make in respect of a cause of action in the first suit then he is precluded from suing again respect of portion so omitted, by virtue of

a) Sec. 11 of C.P.C b) Explanation IV of Sec. II

c) Order II, Rule 2 d) Order II, Rule 3

72. A suit for possession of immovable property on the basis of previous possession and not on the basis of title can be filed under Sec. 6 of S.R. Act, 1963

a) Within 3 months of dispossession

b) Within 6 months of dispossession

c) Within 1 year of dispossession

d) Within 6 years of dispossession

73. Confession of one accused is admissible against Co- accused

a) If they are tried for different offences but jointly

b) If they are tried for same offences but jointly

c) If they are tried for same offences but not jointly

d) If they are tired for different offences but not jointly

74. In execution of a money decree for Rs. 2,000/- the Civil Prision shall be

a) Not exceeding 6 weeks b) Not exceeding 3months

c) Not exceeding 6 months d) None of the above

75. Whether an objection as to jurisdiction relating to subject matters (Competency) can be raised before the supreme court without being in the trial court or first appellate court?

a) No b) Yes

76. In connection with Commercial transactions what should be tha rate of interest from the date of decree to the date of payment?

a) Not exceding 6%

b) Exceeding 6% but not exceeding Contractual rate if any

c) Not exceeding the Contractual rate and in the absence of it the rate at which moneys are lent by nationalised banks in relation to commercial transaction.

d) Not exceeding 18%

77. The amount of Compensatory Costs under Sec. 35-A, C.P.C . shall not exceed

a) Rs. 1000/- b) Rs. 3000/- c) Rs. 5,000/- d) No such limit

78. Of the following which cannot be attached in execution of a Decree

a) Money b) Hundies c) Books of Accounts d) Bank Notes

79. When a Plaint is rejected by the Court under Order VII, Rule 11, the plaintiff can

a) Prefer an appeal

b) Present a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Nether (A) nor (b)

80. When Commission is issued under 18, Rule 4 for examination of witness, within what period the Commissioner shall submit his report?

a) Within 30 days b) Within 60days

c) Within 60 days or within the extended period

d) No such time limit

81. When an application is made by the J.dr, after the decree is passed, for payment of decretal amount in installment for the order of installment payment whether Court should take the Consent of the D.hr?

a) Yes b) No

82. Whether the purchaser of a Property in execution sale can make an application for set aside the sale on the ground that the J.dr had no saleable interest in the property sold?

a) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 89

b) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 90

c) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 91

d) No, as he is purchase he cannot get the sale set aside

83. When the next friend or guardian of a minor wants to enter into any agreement or Compromise on behalf of the minor, whether the leave of the Court is mandatory?

a) No b) Yes

84. When an ad interim injunction is granted by the Court within what period the application shall be disposed of?

a) within 30 days from the date of injunction

b) within 3 months from the date of injunction

c) within 1 Year from the injunction

d) No such time is prescribed.

85. Under which provision of law, the Appellate Court can adduce the additional evidence?

a) Under Order 41, Rule 23 b) Under Order 41, Rule 25

c) Under Order 41, Rule 27 d) Under Order 41, Rule 29

86. Of the following which are compulsorly attestable documents?

a) Sale deed and Mortgage deed b) Mortgage deed and Lease deed

c) Gift deed and Lease deed d) Mortgage deed and Gift deed

87. In case of a transfer hit by "Doctrine of lis pendens' the question of good faith of the vendee is

a) Relevant b) Irrlevant

88. If case of Gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then the gift is

a) Valid b) Void c) Reduced d) Court has to decide

89. Who cannot be arrested in execution of Money Decree?

a) AWoman

b) A Magistrate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.

c) An Advocate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.

d) All the above

90. A declaratory decree passed under Sec. 34 of S.R.Act, 1963 operates -

a) Jus in rem b) Jus in personam

91. Whether an injunction can be granted in a case where for the breach of the Contract Specific performance cannot be granted?

a) No b) Yes

92. According to Sec.5 of the T.P.Act, 1882- living person includes a Company or Association or Body of individuals -

a) Which is incorporated b) Whether incorporated or not

93. According to Sec.6(e) of the T.P.Act, Right to sue for a certain sum of money.

a) Is not transferable b) Is transferable

94. In a contract of sale of goods, a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the Contract is known as -

a) Warranty b) guarantee c) clog d) condition

95. As per Sec.34 of A.P. Tenancy (Telengana Area) Act, 1950, Protected tenant means a person who has the land continuously for a period not less than -

a) 5 Years b) 6 Years c) 7 Years d) 8 Years

96. Under A.P. Escheats and Bona Vacantia Act, 1974, bona vacantia applies to the property -

a) For which there is no rightful owner

b) For which the owner dies intestate (without legal heirs)

97. Which section of the A.P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) control Act, 1960 provides the grounds for eviction of a tenant?

a) Sec.8 b) Sec.9 c) Sec.10 d) Sec.11

98. According to which section of A.P. Gaming Act, 1974 'Game of Skill' is not an offence under the Act?

a) Sec.12 b) Sec.13 c) Sec.14 d) Sec.15

99. Under A.P. Pawn Brokers Act, 2002 carrying on Pawn Broking business without licence is an offence punishable for -

a) Imprisonment for not less than 1 Year and upto 3 years and fine upto 50,000/-

b) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-

c) imprisonment upto 3 Years or fine upto 50,000/- or with both

d) Imprisonment upto 1 Year and fine upto 50,000/-

100. According to Sec.4 of A.P. Prohibition of Ragging Act, 1997 if a person causes ragging or abets. ragging which causes the death, he shall be punished with -

a) Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine upto 50,000/-

b) Imprisonment of life and fine upto 50,000/-

c) Imprisonment upto 7 Years and fine upto 50,000/-

d) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-

Key:

1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) B 13) D 14)C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27)B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) A 40)B 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) B 53)B 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) B 66)D 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) D 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) C 79)C 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) B 88) B 89) D 90) B 91) A 92)B 93) B 94) D 95) B 96) A 97) C 98) D 99) A 100) A